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  • Automation QA

    LoadRunner:

    Load testing software that gives you an accurate picture of end-to-end system performance to identify and resolve issues before applications go-live.

     

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    HP LoadRunner, the market leader for load and performance testing is now even better! We just launched HP LoadRunner version 12.50 with new features to enhance your mobile testing and accelerate your test delivery.
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    Start using HP LoadRunner + Network Virtualization

    The industry-leading HP LoadRunner software includes:

    • Virtual User Generator, Controller, Virtual Table Server and powerful Analysis applications
    • The widest range of supported protocols available
    • Patented TruClient technology for Web and Mobile applications
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  • SSL connection error

    If you’re getting a screen that says tehre’s a problem with the certificate and there are a few links, one says continue to site not recommended, it’s a certificate issue and just click the continue link as long as you trust the site.
    If you can’t connect over SSL to anything via Chrome go into the settings and find the security tab. In there you probably have a ton of stuff disabled, enable anything to do with secure sockets or SSL.
    You could also just have a corrupt cookie. Try clearing all of your history, temporary files and cookies, the close out Chrome and re-open it.
    These are just some kind of random guesses since I’m not really sure what’s going on. If those don’t work for you try and add some info on what exactly you’re having a problem with, like is it a particular site? Is it others connecting to you? Is is Small Business Server related?

  • Popular WordPress Plugin ‘SEO by Yoast’ Vulnerable To Hackers

    Hacker News reports that a vulnerability affecting millions of users has been found in industry leading WordPress plugin SEO by Yoast.

    According to an advisory, all versions of SEO by Yoast prior to 1.7.3.3 are vulnerable to Blind SQL Injection web application flaw. This is considered a critical vulnerability due to the fact that it could seriously compromise your WordPress site.

    Mohit Kumar of Hacker News explains how the vulnerability works:

    “Basically in SQLi attack, an attacker inserts a malformed SQL query into an application via client-side input. However, in this scenario, an outside hacker can’t trigger this vulnerability itself because the flaw actually resides in the ‘admin/class-bulk-editor-list-table.php’ file, which is authorized to be accessed by WordPress Admin, Editor or Author privileged users only.

    Therefore, in order to successfully exploit this vulnerability, it is required to trigger the exploit from authorized users only. This can be achieved with the help of social engineering, where an attacker can trick authorized user to click on a specially crafted payload exploitable URL.”

    Trying to simplify that, what he means is an attacker could exploit this vulnerability by tricking WordPress admins into clicking on a link which would trigger the SQLi attack.

    Once the attack has been carried out, the attacker could then add their own admin account to the vulnerable WordPress site and do whatever they want with it.

    A key takeaway here is the fact that everyone who has SEO by Yoast installed is not going to be automatically affected by this. The attack can only be manually triggered by a WordPress admin, editor, or author who clicks on a dangerous link created by the attacker.

    In addition, this is something that can easily fixed by updating your plugin to the latest version. The Yoast team promptly patched the exploit upon being notified, and the newest version (1.7.4) is said to fix the problem. The Premium version of the plugin has also been updated.

    In the future, you can have plugin updates taken care of automatically by going to the Manage > Plugins & Themes > Auto Updates tab. If you don’t have the auto-update feature turned on, it’s strongly recommended that you update the SEO by Yoast plugin on all sites where you have it installed.

  • 70-411 – Administering Windows Server 2012

    QUESTION 1
    You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Hyper-V server role
    installed.
    An iSCSI SAN is available on the network.
    Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
    You create a LUN on the SAN to host the virtual hard drive files for the virtual machines.
    You need to create a 3-TB virtual hard disk for VM1 on the LUN. The solution must prevent VM1 from being
    paused if the LUN runs out of disk space.
    Which type of virtual hard disk should you create on the LUN?

    A. Dynamically expanding VHDX
    B. Fixed-size VHDX
    C. Fixed-size VHD
    D. Dynamically expanding VHD

    Correct Answer: B

     

    QUESTION 2
    Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a member server named Host1.Host1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
    Host1 hosts two virtual machines named VMS and VM6.Both virtual machines connect to a virtual switch named Virtual1.
    On VM5, you install a network monitoring application named Monitor1.
    You need to capture all of the inbound and outbound traffic to VM6 by using Monitor1.
    Which two commands should you run from Windows PowerShell? (Each correct answer presents part of the
    solution. Choose two.)

    A. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter-IovWeight 1
    B. Get-VM “VM5” I Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 0
    C. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Source
    D. Get-VM “VM6” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On
    E. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Destination
    F. Get-VM “VM5” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -AllowTeaming On

    Correct Answer: CE

     

    QUESTION 3
    You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the virtual switches listed in the following table.
    You create a virtual machine named VM1.VM1 has two network adapters. One network adapter connects to vSwitch1. The other network adapter connects to vSwitch2.You configure NIC teaming on VM1.
    You need to ensure that if a physical NIC fails on Server1, VM1 remains connected to the network.
    What should you do on Server1?
    virtual switch name
    A. Run the Set-VmNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
    B. Add a new network adapter to VM1.
    C. Create a new virtual switch on Server 1.
    D. Modify the properties of vSwitch1 and vSwitch2.

    Correct Answer: A

     

    QUESTION 4
    Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Hyper-V hosts contains
    several virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
    You install the Network Load Balancing feature on the virtual machines.
    You need to configure the virtual machines to support Network Load Balancing (NLB).
    Which virtual machine settings should you configure?

    A. DHCP guard
    B. Port mirroring
    C. Router guard
    D. MAC address

    Correct Answer: D

     

    QUESTION 5
    You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Hyper-V server role
    installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.
    hot-bus-adapter
    You have a virtual machine named VM1.
    You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
    What should you do first?
    A. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
    B. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
    C. Add one HBA.
    D. Configure network adapter teaming.

    Correct Answer: A

    Explanation/Reference:

    A virtual fibre channel SAN will group physical HBA ports together so that you can add a virtual fibre channel adapter to a virtual machine that can be connected to a virtual SAN.
    References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831413.aspx

     

    QUESTION 6
    Your network contains an active directory domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains a
    server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
    You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
    You need to configure a service named service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
    How should you configure service1?
    A. From Services Console configure the recovery settings
    B. From a command prompt ,run sc.exe and specify the config parameter
    C. From Windows PowerShell,run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter
    D. From a command prompt ,run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter

    Correct Answer: B

     

    QUESTION 7
    Your network contains an active directory domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains 100
    user accounts that reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
    You need to ensure that user named user1 can link and unlink Group Policy Objects(GPOs) to
    OU1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to user1.
    What should you do?
    A. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the Policies containers
    B. Run the Set-GPPermission cmdlet
    C. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on OU1
    D. Modify the permission on the user1 account
    Correct Answer: C

     

    QUESTION 8
    You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You promote Server1 to
    domain controller. You need to view the service location (SVR) records that Server1 registers on
    DNS. What should you do on Server1?

    A. Open the Srv.sys file
    B. Open the Netlogon.dns file
    C. Run ipconfig/displaydns
    D. Run Get-DnsServerDiagnostics
    Correct Answer: B

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  • Cisco Exams reviews

  • How can I find the version of Adobe Reader

    Determining version of Adobe Reader in Windows?

    1. Click Start and then Programs
    2. Within Programs if Adobe Acrobat is installed you should see an Adobe Acrobat x icon, where “x” is the version acrobatpdfof Adobe Acrobat. For example, “Adobe Acrobat 8” may be seen if a variant of 8 is installed. Click this icon to open the program.
    3. Within the program click Help and then About. Within the about information you’ll see the full version of Adobe Acrobat.

  • CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam

    Question 5:
    ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?

    ICMP Echo requests

    A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
    B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
    C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
    D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
    E. The link is congested.

    Correct Answer: D

     

    QUESTION 6
    Refer to the exhibit.

    pkts
    Which statement is true?

    A. It is impossible for the destination interface to equal the source interface.
    B. NAT on a stick is performed on interface Et0/0.
    C. There is a potential routing loop.
    D. This output represents a UDP flow or a TCP flow.
    Correct Answer: C

     

    QUESTION 13
    Refer to the exhibit.
    While troubleshooting high CPU utilization of a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch, you notice the error
    message that is shown in the exhibit in the log file. What can be the cause of this issue, and how can it be
    prevented?

    routing-table
    A. The hardware routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
    B. The software routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
    C. The hardware routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
    D. The software routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
    Correct Answer: C

     

    QUESTION 22
    Refer to the exhibit.

    mroute

    What is the meaning of the asterisk (*) in the output?

    A. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the RPF neighbor for the group 232.1.1.1 for the shared tree.
    B. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the one that is seen as the RPF neighbor when performing the command show ip
    rpf 10.1.4.7.
    C. PIM neighbor 10.1.5.6 is the winner of an assert mechanism.
    D. The RPF neighbor 10.1.5.6 is invalid.

    Correct Answer: C

     

    QUESTION 27
    Refer to the exhibit.

    router-configuration

    Routers R1, R2, and R3 are configured as shown, and traffic from R2 fails to reach 172.29.168.3.
    Which action can you take to correct the problem?

    A. Correct the static route on R1.
    B. Correct the default route on R2.
    C. Edit the EIGRP configuration of R3 to enable auto-summary.
    D. Correct the network statement for 172.29.168.3 on R3.
    Correct Answer: A

     

    QUESTION 37
    Refer to the exhibit.

    provider

    AS #1 and AS #2 have multiple EBGP connections with each other. AS #1 wants all return traffic that is
    destined to the prefix 10.10.10.1/32 to enter through the router R1 from AS #2. In order to achieve this routing
    policy, the AS 1 advertises a lower MED from R1, compared to a higher MED from R3, to their respective BGP
    neighbor for the prefix 10.10.10.0/24. Will this measure guarantee that the routing policy is always in effect?
    A. Yes, because MED plays a deterministic role in return traffic engineering in BGP.
    B. Yes, because a lower MED forces BGP best-path route selection in AS #2 to choose R1 as the best path for 10.10.10.0/24.
    C. Yes, because a lower MED in AS #2 is the highest BGP attribute in BGP best-path route selection.
    D. No, AS #2 can choose to alter the weight attribute in R2 for BGP neighbor R1, and this weight value is
    cascaded across AS #2 for BGP best-path route selection.
    E. No, AS #2 can choose to alter the local preference attribute to overwrite the best-path route selection over the lower MED advertisement from AS #1. This local preference attribute is cascaded across AS #2 for the BGP best-path route selection.

    Correct Answer: E

     

    QUESTION 53
    Refer to the exhibit.

    PEV1

     

    You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
    A. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3.
    B. address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3.
    C. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted.
    D. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering.
    E. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted.

    Correct Answer: DE

     

    QUESTION 54

    Refer to the exhibit.

    R6-debug

    NHRP registration is failing; what might be the problem?
    A. invalid IP addressing
    B. fragmentation
    C. incorrect NHRP mapping
    D. incorrect NHRP authentication
    Correct Answer: D

     

    QUESTION 78

    srcif
    Refer to the exhibit.

    Which statement about the output is true?
    A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
    B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
    C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
    D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.

    Correct Answer: A

     

    QUESTION 122
    Refer to the exhibit.

    bgp-AS65105

    Why is R2 unable to ping the loopback interface of R4?
    A. The local preference is too high.
    B. The weight is too low.
    C. The next hop is not reachable from R2.
    D. The route originated from within the same AS.
    Correct Answer: C

     

    QUESTION 125
    Refer to the exhibit.

    showipbgp

    Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

    A. This router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
    B. This router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
    C. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
    D. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
    E. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was originated from a 4-byte autonomous system.
    Correct Answer: AD

     

    QUESTION 126

    Refer to the exhibit.

    ipv4-unicast

    Which command is configured on this router?

    A. bgp update-delay 60
    B. neighbor 10.100.1.1 maximum-prefix 200
    C. neighbor 10.100.1.1 maximum-path 2
    D. neighbor 10.100.1.1 ebgp-multihop 2
    Correct Answer: B

     

    QUESTION 134
    Refer to the exhibit.

    show-ip-route

    Why is the prefix 1.1.1.1/32 not present in the routing table of R1?

    A. There is a duplicate router ID.
    B. There is a subnet mask mismatch on Ethernet0/0.
    C. The router LSA has an invalid checksum.
    D. There is an OSPF network type mismatch that causes the advertising router to be unreachable.

    Correct Answer: D

     

    QUESTION 135
    Refer to the exhibit.

    show-ip-cache

    What is the PHB class on this flow?

    A. EF
    B. none
    C. AF21
    D. CS4

    Correct Answer: D

     

    QUESTION 136
    Refer to the exhibit.

    show-ip-cache

    What kind of load balancing is done on this router?

    A. per-packet load balancing
    B. per-flow load balancing
    C. per-label load balancing
    D. star round-robin load balancing

    Correct Answer: A

     

    QUESTION 143
    Refer to the exhibit.

    interface-loopback0

    How many EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2?

    A. 0
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 3

    Correct Answer: A

     

    QUESTION 179
    Refer to the exhibit

    police-cir-percent10

    A PE router is configured with a policy map that contains the policer shown. The policy map is configured in the inbound direction of an interface facing a CE router. If the PE router receives 12Mb/s of traffic with the CoS value set to 7 on a 100-Mb/s interface from the CE router, what value of MPLS EXP is set when this traffic goes through the policer shown?
    A. 0
    B. 6
    C. 7
    D. 8

    Correct Answer: B

     

    QUESTION 180

    What is the correct order of the VSS initialization process? drag the actions on the left to the correct
    initialization step on the right.
    Select and Place:
    VSS initialization proces

    Correct Answer: 

    VSS initialization proces1

     

    QUESTION 181

    Drag and drop the IPv6 address on the left to the correct IPv6 address type on the right.
    Select and Place:

    Select and Place:
    IPv6-dragdrop

     

    Correct Answer:
    IPv6-dragdrop1

     

     

    QUESTION 182
    Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right.

    Select and Place:
    BGP attribute

     

    Correct Answer:
    BGP attribute1

     

    QUESTION 183
    Drag and drop the items on the left to the correct category on the right.

    Select and Place:
    encrypts-entire

    Correct Answer:
    encrypts-entire1

    QUESTION 184

    Drag and drop the events on the left to display the correct sequence on the right when CoPP is enabled.
    Select and Place:

    dragdrop-copp

     

    Correct Answer:
    copp-enable

     

    QUESTION 185
    Drag and drop the QoS requirement on the left to the correct QoS technology on the right.

    Select and Place:
    QOS-requirement

     

    Correct Answer:
    QOS-requirement1

     

    QUESTION 186
    Drag and drop the IPv6 multicast feature or protocol on the left to the correct address space on the right.

    Select and Place:
    multicast-feature

    Correct Answer:
    multicast-feature1

     

    QUESTION 187

    Drag and drop the multicast protocol or feature on the left to the correct address space on the right.

    Select and Place:
    correct-address

    Correct Answer:
    correct-address1

     

    QUESTION 188
    Drag and drop the router preference on the left to the correct routing sequence (from most preferred to least preferred) on the right.

    Select and Place:
    EBGP-route

     

    Correct Answer:

    EBGP-route1

     

    QUESTION 189
    Drag and drop the multicast protocol definition on the left to the correct default time interval on the right.

    Select and Place:
    IGMPv2

     

    Correct Answer:
    IGMPv2a

     

    QUESTION 190
    Drag and drop the O3PF network type on the left to the correct traffic type category on the right.
    Select and Place:
    OSPF Network Type

    Correct Answer:
    OSPF Network Type1

  • More than 100 Keyboard Shortcuts

    More than 100 Keyboard Shortcuts must read & Share

    Keyboard Shortcuts (Microsoft Windows)
    1. CTRL+C (Copy)
    2. CTRL+X (Cut)
    … 3. CTRL+V (Paste)
    4. CTRL+Z (Undo)
    5. DELETE (Delete)
    6. SHIFT+DELETE (Delete the selected item permanently without placing the item in the Recycle Bin)
    7. CTRL while dragging an item (Copy the selected item)
    8. CTRL+SHIFT while dragging an item (Create a shortcut to the selected item)
    9. F2 key (Rename the selected item)
    10. CTRL+RIGHT ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the next word)
    11. CTRL+LEFT ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the previous word)
    12. CTRL+DOWN ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the next paragraph)
    13. CTRL+UP ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the previous paragraph)
    14. CTRL+SHIFT with any of the arrow keys (Highlight a block of text)
    SHIFT with any of the arrow keys (Select more than one item in a window or on the desktop, or select text in a document)
    15. CTRL+A (Select all)
    16. F3 key (Search for a file or a folder)
    17. ALT+ENTER (View the properties for the selected item)
    18. ALT+F4 (Close the active item, or quit the active program)
    19. ALT+ENTER (Display the properties of the selected object)
    20. ALT+SPACEBAR (Open the shortcut menu for the active window)
    21. CTRL+F4 (Close the active document in programs that enable you to have multiple documents opensimultaneously)
    22. ALT+TAB (Switch between the open items)
    23. ALT+ESC (Cycle through items in the order that they had been opened)
    24. F6 key (Cycle through the screen elements in a window or on the desktop)
    25. F4 key (Display the Address bar list in My Computer or Windows Explorer)
    26. SHIFT+F10 (Display the shortcut menu for the selected item)
    27. ALT+SPACEBAR (Display the System menu for the active window)
    28. CTRL+ESC (Display the Start menu)
    29. ALT+Underlined letter in a menu name (Display the corresponding menu) Underlined letter in a command name on an open menu (Perform the corresponding command)
    30. F10 key (Activate the menu bar in the active program)
    31. RIGHT ARROW (Open the next menu to the right, or open a submenu)
    32. LEFT ARROW (Open the next menu to the left, or close a submenu)
    33. F5 key (Update the active window)
    34. BACKSPACE (View the folder onelevel up in My Computer or Windows Explorer)
    35. ESC (Cancel the current task)
    36. SHIFT when you insert a CD-ROMinto the CD-ROM drive (Prevent the CD-ROM from automatically playing)
    Dialog Box – Keyboard Shortcuts
    1. CTRL+TAB (Move forward through the tabs)
    2. CTRL+SHIFT+TAB (Move backward through the tabs)
    3. TAB (Move forward through the options)
    4. SHIFT+TAB (Move backward through the options)
    5. ALT+Underlined letter (Perform the corresponding command or select the corresponding option)
    6. ENTER (Perform the command for the active option or button)
    7. SPACEBAR (Select or clear the check box if the active option is a check box)
    8. Arrow keys (Select a button if the active option is a group of option buttons)
    9. F1 key (Display Help)
    10. F4 key (Display the items in the active list)
    11. BACKSPACE (Open a folder one level up if a folder is selected in the Save As or Open dialog box)

    Microsoft Natural Keyboard Shortcuts
    1. Windows Logo (Display or hide the Start menu)
    2. Windows Logo+BREAK (Display the System Properties dialog box)
    3. Windows Logo+D (Display the desktop)
    4. Windows Logo+M (Minimize all of the windows)
    5. Windows Logo+SHIFT+M (Restorethe minimized windows)
    6. Windows Logo+E (Open My Computer)
    7. Windows Logo+F (Search for a file or a folder)
    8. CTRL+Windows Logo+F (Search for computers)
    9. Windows Logo+F1 (Display Windows Help)
    10. Windows Logo+ L (Lock the keyboard)
    11. Windows Logo+R (Open the Run dialog box)
    12. Windows Logo+U (Open Utility Manager)
    13. Accessibility Keyboard Shortcuts
    14. Right SHIFT for eight seconds (Switch FilterKeys either on or off)
    15. Left ALT+left SHIFT+PRINT SCREEN (Switch High Contrast either on or off)
    16. Left ALT+left SHIFT+NUM LOCK (Switch the MouseKeys either on or off)
    17. SHIFT five times (Switch the StickyKeys either on or off)
    18. NUM LOCK for five seconds (Switch the ToggleKeys either on or off)
    19. Windows Logo +U (Open Utility Manager)
    20. Windows Explorer Keyboard Shortcuts
    21. END (Display the bottom of the active window)
    22. HOME (Display the top of the active window)
    23. NUM LOCK+Asterisk sign (*) (Display all of the subfolders that are under the selected folder)
    24. NUM LOCK+Plus sign (+) (Display the contents of the selected folder)

    MMC Console keyboard shortcuts

    1. SHIFT+F10 (Display the Action shortcut menu for the selected item)
    2. F1 key (Open the Help topic, if any, for the selected item)
    3. F5 key (Update the content of all console windows)
    4. CTRL+F10 (Maximize the active console window)
    5. CTRL+F5 (Restore the active console window)
    6. ALT+ENTER (Display the Properties dialog box, if any, for theselected item)
    7. F2 key (Rename the selected item)
    8. CTRL+F4 (Close the active console window. When a console has only one console window, this shortcut closes the console)

    Remote Desktop Connection Navigation
    1. CTRL+ALT+END (Open the Microsoft Windows NT Security dialog box)
    2. ALT+PAGE UP (Switch between programs from left to right)
    3. ALT+PAGE DOWN (Switch between programs from right to left)
    4. ALT+INSERT (Cycle through the programs in most recently used order)
    5. ALT+HOME (Display the Start menu)
    6. CTRL+ALT+BREAK (Switch the client computer between a window and a full screen)
    7. ALT+DELETE (Display the Windows menu)
    8. CTRL+ALT+Minus sign (-) (Place a snapshot of the active window in the client on the Terminal server clipboard and provide the same functionality as pressing PRINT SCREEN on a local computer.)
    9. CTRL+ALT+Plus sign (+) (Place asnapshot of the entire client window area on the Terminal server clipboardand provide the same functionality aspressing ALT+PRINT SCREEN on a local computer.)

    Microsoft Internet Explorer Keyboard Shortcuts
    1. CTRL+B (Open the Organize Favorites dialog box)
    2. CTRL+E (Open the Search bar)
    3. CTRL+F (Start the Find utility)
    4. CTRL+H (Open the History bar)
    5. CTRL+I (Open the Favorites bar)
    6. CTRL+L (Open the Open dialog box)
    7. CTRL+N (Start another instance of the browser with the same Web address)
    8. CTRL+O (Open the Open dialog box,the same as CTRL+L)
    9. CTRL+P (Open the Print dialog box)
    10. CTRL+R (Update the current Web page)
    11. CTRL+W (Close the current window)
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  • SQL basics

    SQL – Structured Query Language
    SQL (pronounced “ess-que-el”) stands for Structured Query Language. SQL is used to communicate with a database. According to ANSI (American National Standards Institute), it is the standard language for relational database management systems.

    SQL is a standard language for accessing and manipulating databases.

    What is SQL?

    • SQL stands for Structured Query Language
    • SQL lets you access and manipulate databases
    • SQL is an ANSI (American National Standards Institute) standard

    What Can SQL do?

    • SQL can execute queries against a database
    • SQL can retrieve data from a database
    • SQL can insert records in a database
    • SQL can update records in a database
    • SQL can delete records from a database
    • SQL can create new databases
    • SQL can create new tables in a database
    • SQL can create stored procedures in a database
    • SQL can create views in a database
    • SQL can set permissions on tables, procedures, and views

    SQL is a Standard – BUT….

    Although SQL is an ANSI (American National Standards Institute) standard, there are different versions of the SQL language.

    However, to be compliant with the ANSI standard, they all support at least the major commands (such as SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE, INSERT, WHERE) in a similar manner.

    Using SQL in Your Web Site

    To build a web site that shows data from a database, you will need:

    • An RDBMS database program (i.e. MS Access, SQL Server, MySQL)
    • To use a server-side scripting language, like PHP or ASP
    • To use SQL to get the data you want
    • To use HTML / CSS

    RDBMS

    RDBMS stands for Relational Database Management System
    RDBMS is the basis for SQL, and for all modern database systems such as MS SQL Server, IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL, and Microsoft Access.The data in RDBMS is stored in database objects called tables.

    A table is a collection of related data entries and it consists of columns and rows.